How come Akdamut is recited BEFORE the brachah of the Torah and Y'tsiv Pitgam AFTER the brachah of the Haftarah?
Note: Yekkes don't recite Y'tziv Pitgam but they do recite Akdamut following the first passuk of the leining just as Y'tziv Pisgam follows the first passuk of the Haftarah [except for those who preface the haftarah with Vashem]
Thus, This is the original structure for both Ak and YP
2. Lein a passuk
3. Recite Aramaic poem
4. Resume Leining
The Ta"z and others protested, that the Piyyut is a hefsek.
But, as Artscrolls's Akdamus suggests, the Aramaic poems were introductions to their respective Targumim. Hence • the first passuk had to be leined
• its Aramaic nature.
If so IMHO citing Kabbalah as THE reason for the Aramaic is a red herring. After all there's already Plenty of Hebrew Kabbalah in piyyutim.
With Y'tziv Pitgam as an intro to Targum, what is the real meaning of "Y'honatan g'var inv'tan"?
Does the inv'tan mean that Y'honatan is "Moshe"
Or is Y'honatan a reference to the author of the Targum - Y'honatan ben Uzziel - and it was he who was the anav here?