Originally published 6/5/11, 7:30 pm.
How come Akdamut is recited BEFORE the brachah of the Torah and Y'tsiv Pitgam AFTER the brachah of the Haftarah?
Note: Yekkes don't recite Y'tziv Pitgam but they do recite Akdamut following the first passuk of the leining just as Y'tziv Pisgam follows the first passuk of the Haftarah [except for those who preface the haftarah with Vashem]
Thus, This is the original structure for both Ak and YP
1. Brachah
2. Lein a passuk
3. Recite Aramaic poem
4. Resume Leining
The Ta"z and others protested, that the Piyyut is a hefsek.
But, as Artscrolls's Akdamus suggests, the Aramaic poems were introductions to their respective Targumim. Hence • the first passuk had to be leined
and hence
• its Aramaic nature.
If so IMHO citing Kabbalah as THE reason for the Aramaic is a red herring. After all there's already Plenty of Hebrew Kabbalah in piyyutim.
------------------
With Y'tziv Pitgam as an intro to Targum, what is the real meaning of "Y'honatan g'var inv'tan"?
Does the inv'tan mean that Y'honatan is "Moshe"
Or is Y'honatan a reference to the author of the Targum - Y'honatan ben Uzziel - and it was he who was the anav here?
Shalom,
RRW
No comments:
Post a Comment